STUDIES IN THE LORD'S SUPPER
"do this in remembrance of Me" (1 Cor. 11:24 NKJV)
(Denny Smith)
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Studies In The Lord's Supper
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"God is Spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth." (John 4:24 NKJV)
Does the Bible teach that we should ask the Father to bless the bread and/or the fruit of the vine at the Lord's table or does it teach that we should give thanks? The two are not one and the same. This is a subject that needs study and that is the intent of this article. We begin by asking what does it mean to bless the bread, what is being sought?
When we ask God to bless the bread and/or the fruit of the vine at the communion table even those who ask do not know or understand what it is they are asking for or what they expect from God as a result. It is all left very vague. If a farmer was to ask God to bless his crop we would readily understand what was desired but not here.
Sometimes the one who leads the prayer will qualify his request for a blessing on the bread or the fruit of the vine by adding the phrase "toward its intended use". How does that help any? What is its intended use? All agree the intended use lies in the spiritual realm, not in the physical. It is to be a blessing to the spiritual man, not the physical man, but that means that the burden lies on me as a partaker if the supper is to prove a blessing to me. It is my attitude, my spiritual state of mind, my approach to the supper, my spiritual life that makes the difference as to whether or not I observe the meal in a manner resulting in it being a blessing to me. The burden is on man, not God.
I do not believe there is the least bit of evidence in scripture for the idea that Jesus ever blessed the bread or the fruit of the vine in instituting the Lord's Supper based on what is recorded . If he did where is the passage showing that? Indeed, where is the example of any man in New Testament times asking God to bless the bread and/or the fruit of the vine?
What does the word bless generally mean as it relates to prayer? There is one passage that is so clear on the matter as to settle the issue with those who believe the Bible. That passage is 1 Cor. 14:16-17 (KJV).
"Else, when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest? For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified."
It does not get any plainer than that. To bless in prayer means to give thanks. Since the English word bless is only used a total of 9 times in the King James version of the New Testament it will not take long to run through those listings, check them out, and see what we find, see if we ought to continue this practice of asking God to bless the emblems at the Lord's table. Since we have already taken a look at 1 Cor. 14:16-17 we only have 8 other verses to examine. Those verses are as follows: Matt. 5:44, Luke 6:28, Rom. 12:14, 1 Cor. 4:12, Acts 3:26, 1 Cor. 10:16, Heb. 6:14, and James 3:9.
Four of the verses just listed teach the same thing so we can deal with them as a group. I will use the passage of Luke 6:28 which reads as follows:
"Bless them that curse you, and pray for them which despitefully use you."
If the reader will check out Matt. 5:44, Rom. 12:14, and 1 Cor. 4:12 he will find the same doctrine being taught. I did not start with Matt. 5:44 for the reason that most modern versions do not have the word bless in them at that verse in view of the fact there is a textual variant there.
Anyone can see from a quick reading that man, not God, is to do the blessing here. It is also obvious that one man can only bless another in one of two ways, by word or by deed. Most commentators agree with Barnes' comments when he says, "The word 'bless' here means to 'speak well of' or 'speak well to'".
This only leaves 4 other times in the King James New Testament where our word bless is used. The next verse where the term is found is in Acts 3:26:
"Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities."
In this passage the meaning of the word bless is self explanatory as it is plainly stated. Jesus does bless us by "turning away every one of you from his iniquities". The ESV (English Standard Version) is even plainer for it reads "God, having raised up his servant, sent him to you first, to bless you by turning every one of you from your wickedness." This blessing came to man by means of the cross and the gospel which if believed and obeyed results in the greatest blessing possible that could be bestowed upon man - salvation, eternal life.
Now to get to the subject of the Lord's Supper about which this document is about. The word bless is found in 1 Cor. 10:16:
"The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?"
All are in agreement that Paul is talking here about the communion service. The reader will be reminded that we have already shown from Paul's writing in 1 Cor. 14:16-17 earlier in this article that to bless is to simply give thanks for that is what Paul says there. The reader will also note that we do the blessing, not God.
Paul says in his account of Jesus' instituting the Lord's Supper "For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, That the Lord Jesus, the same night in which he was betrayed took bread: And when he had given thanks, he brake it , and said, Take, eat; this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me. After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me." (1 Cor. 11:23 - 25) (Italics indicate words not in the original Greek text but added by the translators.)
The reader is asked did Jesus bless the bread the way man speaks of God doing it today? Did he do it himself? Did he ask the Father to do it? Or, did he merely just give thanksgiving to God for the bread and the fruit of the vine?
Paul says that Jesus gave thanks for the bread and then says of the fruit of the vine Jesus did the same (gave thanks) for he says "after the same manner", that is he followed the same procedure for the fruit of the vine as he had done for the bread. Now I wonder how Paul knows all of this in view of the fact he was not there when Jesus did this? Well, he says "I have received of the Lord " (1 Cor. 11:23). He says the Lord told him. He knew by revelation. I ask the reader is this an important topic? If it was so important to the Lord that he makes sure Paul knows exactly how he instituted the supper and proceeded who is man to say it makes no difference, I will do it my way? If we do what Jesus did we will give thanks. If we do what man does we will ask God to bless.
Let us summarize where we are at up to this point. (1) To bless as it relates to prayer means to give thanks. (2) We do this, not God. (3) Jesus' example shows that he did not bestow a blessing as modern day man perceives of the thing on the bread or the fruit of the vine in instituting the Lord's Supper but rather simply gave thanksgiving to God in prayer. (4) Jesus did not ask God the Father to bless the bread or the fruit of the vine.
I think it is very possible modern day error on this subject has come from a bad rendering in the King James Bible of Matt. 26:26-27 where a word was added to the text by the translators but generally read as though it was a part of the original Greek manuscripts. The text there reads as follows:
"And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body. And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it".
The discerning reader can easily see that the word "it" in italics is an added word, added by the translators, and not in the original manuscripts. When read or rendered correctly this text merely states that Jesus blessed, gave thanks. The word bless as it relates to prayer means to give thanks as has already been shown. One can find this passage rendered correctly in the original ASV (American Standard Version) of 1901. The Lord told Paul he gave thanks. Matthew was present when the Lord instituted the supper. Matthew says Jesus blessed. Unless Jesus lied to Paul bless then means to give thanks.
The ESV (English Standard Version) is in error on this passage as it reads, "Now as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and after blessing it broke it and gave it to the disciples, and said, 'Take, eat; this is my body.'" As can readily be seen they added the word "it" without any indication whatsoever that "it" is not in the Greek text and thus changed the meaning of the text. The word "it" is not in the Greek text from whence the KJV was translated but neither is it in the texts from whence the New American Standard, the English Standard Version, and other modern translations come. It just goes to show that even the smallest words when added or deleted from the text can make a big difference. One needs to have a Bible where the added words are italized so one knows what is going on.
Before leaving the passage in Matt. 26:26-27 for good here are some comments from Barnes' commentary on that passage "... or 'gave thanks' to God for it. The word rendered 'blessed' not unfrequently means 'to give thanks.'"
The word bless is used in the sense of gave thanks in prayer in all passages relating to the Lord's Supper. Here is a little diagram that I think will help. In this diagram one can readily see which word is used in the various accounts of the Lord's supper with regards to what was said with respect to the bread and the fruit of the vine. All references are from the King James Version.
| For the Bread | For the Fruit of the Vine | |
| Matt. 26:26-27 | "blessed" | "gave thanks" |
| Mark 14:22-23 | "blessed" | "given thanks" |
| Luke 22:19-20 | "gave thanks" | "likewise" |
| 1 Cor. 10:16 | (nothing given) | "bless" |
| 1 Cor. 11:23-26 | "given thanks" | "after the same manner" |
Unless Jesus did something different for the bread than he did for the fruit of the vine, looking at Matthew and Mark's account, the word bless obviously means give thanks. That he did not do anything different is shown both by Luke and Paul who both say he gave thanks. And Paul, remember, says he received his knowledge on the subject directly from the Lord.
Many years ago it was common when people were gathered together for a meal to hear the one in charge ask another to "give the blessing". People in those days understood the matter. To bless or give the blessing is to have a prayer of thanksgiving to God. This is not to say that this is what the word bless means in every instance but it is to say that is what it means in reference to the Lord's Supper and in prayers surrounding that observance.
Since there are only 2 other passages in the King James New Testament that use the word bless we may as well touch on them before concluding this study.
"For when God made promise to Abraham, because he could swear by no greater, he sware by himself, Saying, Surely blessing I will bless thee, and multiplying I will multiply thee." (Heb. 6:13-14)
The word blessing in this passage and the word bless are both from the same Greek word. Albert Barnes, the commentator says, "the phrase is a Hebrew mode of expression, to denote emphasis or certainty - indicated by the repetition of a word". Man gives thanks, not God. Thanksgiving goes from man to God, not from God to man. Thus the words blessing and bless here refer to what we commonly think of when we hear the phrase "blessings from God". It is speaking of favors to be bestowed from God to Abraham in accord with the promise. The reader will readily see we are not dealing with the subject of prayer here.
The last time the word bless is used in the King James New Testament is in James 3:8-9.
"But the tongue can no man tame; it is an unruly evil, full of deadly poison. Therewith bless we God, even the Father; and therewith curse we men, which are made after the similitude of God."
Man does not bestow blessings upon God. When the Bible speaks of man blessing God the reference is to man's thanksgiving to God. The TEV, or as it is sometimes called The Good News Bible, makes this clear and translates these two verses as follows:
"But no one has ever been able to tame the tongue. It is evil and uncontrollable, full of deadly poison. We use it to give thanks to our Lord and Father and also to curse our fellow-man, who is created in the likeness of God."
My concern in doing this study related to one thing only - that which commonly occurs at the Lord's table in our worship service. That was the motivation for the study. Jesus gave thanks in instituting the Lord's Supper yet in many congregations on a Sunday morning, depending on those leading the prayers, thanksgiving will never be given or given only for the bread or the fruit of the vine but not both. Many would be aghast at eating a common meal without giving thanks to God yet chances are good that they will eat the Lord's Supper come this next Sunday, at least in many congregations, without a word of thanksgiving at all. Jesus did not do this but we will. Why? Is he our example? Is it a little thing not to express thanksgiving in view of the sacrifice that was made?
Some will think this is but nitpicking. That being the case there are some questions that need to be answered. Why did the Lord give Paul a direct revelation of how he instituted the supper, what he said and what he did? Why be so specific? Why not just give Paul a broad general statement of what he wanted done and leave Paul (and us) to take it from there? Why rebuke the church at Corinth if just any old way of doing it will do? Who put you and me in charge to decide for God what is really important versus what is not?
We ask God to do something that no inspired man in New Testament times ever did. We ask and do not know what we are asking. What do we want God to do? What are we expecting? What is suppose to happen? If he was to bless the bread how would we know?
There is a matter of conscience involved in this. If one believes that we are to give God thanks for the bread and the fruit of the vine as the Lord did how are we to worship in good conscience if the one leading prayer does not give thanks? What are we to do? If we all are to worship God "in spirit and in truth" (John 4:24) are we doing so when we do not give thanks? Where is the truth part if we do not give thanks?
Then the question arises as to why we have been so unconcerned abut this matter over the years? I say first of all that most brethren are unaware of the truth on this matter for it has been an untaught subject. Not knowing there is a problem they are unconcerned understandably so. But, we have preachers and teachers who do know the truth so why is it that it remains an untaught subject? We who are always emphasizing the need to worship in spirit and truth, how is it we are content to worship in error in this aspect of our worship?
My final statement on the subject is that I have had no intent in this article to castigate my brethren who have gotten into error in their practice on this subject. We all do the best we can when we are at our best in living the Christian life. We know what we have studied and what we have been taught. That does not mean that we have studied every subject or been taught every subject. I have confidence that just about every brother who learns the truth will immediately change his practice if it has been erroneous once he learns his error. I have confidence the brethren want to do what is right.
"God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth." (John 4:24)
ADDENDA:
How about the feeding of the 5,000? Did not Jesus bless the bread and the fish directly? Well, he certainly performed a miracle. One can read about it in Matt. 14:15-21, Mark 6:32-44, Luke 9:12-17, and John 6:5-13. Since it is not my desire to drag this study out endlessly let the reader simply consult John's account of the feeding of the 5,000 (John 6:11) and he will see that when Jesus looked to heaven and blessed he simply gave thanks. Matthew and Mark simply say Jesus "blessed" with Luke being the only one of the 4 that says Jesus "blessed them" (seeming to imply the food was blessed) .
The English Standard Version translates Luke 9:16 as follows: "And taking the five loaves and the two fish, he looked up to heaven and said a blessing over them ... ." That is what you and I do when we give thanks for a meal over the meal as it sits at the table before us. Today's English Version, the Good News New Testament, translates it: "Jesus took the five loaves and two fish, looked up to heaven, thanked God for them, broke them, and gave them ... ."
On the feeding of the four thousand one need only to consult Matthew's account in chapter 15:32-39 to see that Jesus gave thanks for both the loaves and the fish (verse 36) but Mark also says the same thing in Mark 8:6 with regards to the loaves differing from Matthew only in that with regards to the fish. Mark says, where Matthew does not, that Jesus "blessed them". These are the only two accounts given of that event. If to bless them is something different than to give thanks for them then why did Jesus bless the fish but not the loaves and why did not Matthew include that information like Mark did? The answer is that they are not two different things but one and the same. Blessed them simply means Jesus gave thanks for them. Matthew and Mark are not at odds.
Finally, this study is not to be taken to mean or imply that one could not or should not ask God to bless say one's work, a farmer's crop, etc., for one of the meanings of the word bless (just about all words have multiple meanings) is, according to Thayer, "to cause to prosper". Surely we seek God's favor, his blessing, on our endeavors. It is right that we do so.
REFERENCES:
"Do You Give Thanks?", Roy H. Lanier, Sr., Gospel Advocate, Sept. 8, 1977.
Guy N. Woods, Questions and Answers: Open Forum, Freed-Hardeman College Lectures, Vol. 1, 1976, pages 178-180.